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I have seen a few papers that show plots of the “true posterior” for a generative model on a toy problem.
Before I did not understand how this could be computed, but now maybe I am closer. I’m sure you can help me
Is this the way to do it? (See below)
Definitions and setup:
The generative model is p(x|z)*p(z). The posterior is p(z|x).
A particular x is given and we want to know the distribution p(z|x) for that x,
using p(z|x) ~ p(x|z)*p(x) ,
i.e. without evaluate the Bayes denominator.
submitted by /u/readinginthewild
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